If the star is <1.5 billion years old, and the planet is expected to fall into that star in <1 million years, how did that planet have both time to form (which would have occurred far away) and to have its orbit decay?
The idea is that it formed farther away, and has been "falling" the whole time, and it's just about to hit the star. Which is dismissed as an unlikely coincidence, but maybe.
We should be able to find out soon.
If it's really that close, and the existing estimate for Q is correct, the orbital period should change measurably within the next year or two.
